On Mon, 8 Mar 2010 19:52:39 -0800 (PST), Alfred Montestruc
wrote:
>> In fact, one of the reasons why Hitler was able to do France in 1940
>> was because of the *stockpiles* he'd captured in Poland and acquired
>> in Czechoslovakia being enough, along with the small amounts produced
>> by both those countries, to fuel the invasion ... or so I have read
>> over the years in a couple of places.
>>
>> Dunno for sure that the last bit is true (or not!), but it seems
>> reasonable.
>
>My conjecture was that with the collapse of the USSR Germany can sell
>oil from the Caspian sea region via the trans-siberian railroad, and
>more important can allow japan to pick up the far eastern oilfields in
>Siberia and especially on Sakhalin Island and other oilfields near the
>coast.
>
>All of this was hinged on the proposition that the USSR collapses in
>late '41 early '42.
Meaning essentially that Hitler seizes the Trans-Siberian essentially
intact.
Even if the Soviet government orders an intact handover as part of the
surrender do you seriously think partisans are going to obey that
order?
Uh - I dunno...besides that would require Soviet rolling stock since
German and Russian trains used different sized rails.
Best case for the Axis is 12-18 months before significant oil supplies
move west (or east) even if there is no partisan resistance which I
think makes Sealion brilliantly attainable by comparison. |
